if one spouse has been providing main/stable financial support for the last at least 5 years or so (while the other spouse is consistently in between jobs), most of the mortage of the house is paid for by the main spouse. the other spouse has provided little to no financial support from the unemployment payments. i understand that the state of california divides all properties equally in a no-fault divorce, but was wondering in such a situation where the financial contribution was so one-sided, is there any consideration given for this? also, since the other spouse does not have a job, would the main spouse have to provide support or alimony also?
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