The car is not in my name. I have read that you must own or lease the vehicle in order to use the standard mileage deduction. Can this leasing of the vehicle be an informal agreement between the owner and myself? Would it be better if we had a written agreement of some payment for the use of the car? I am the only one who drives said car. Could the lease payment be in the form of service provided such as cleaning his house or driving his kids to school as long as there was a written agreement that I provide these services as payment for use of the car? Or could I use the deduction if we write an agreement and I pay actual dollars to lease the car?
You would need to consult with an attorney to discuss the details of your situation for specific advice. This forum is not designed to provide you with a response to your question.
This answer does not establish an attorney client relationship and is just my opinion based upon the limited facts presented.
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