The prenup list that the instigating party (Party A) owns a property.
At the time of marriage the property in question was actually owned by a trust.
Party A has 50% interest in the property once the transfer takes place (after marriage).
Party A and spouse pay Party B owner rent until a time when Party A and spouse buy out Party B.
Party A forces spouse through obligations interpreted, by Party A, from the prenup to grant deed the property back to her sole property.
Was the property ever actually separate property of Party A? At what point did the community actually acquire an interest? Does undo influence apply when it is based on the stipulations of a prenup? Did Party A break fiduciary duties to Party B? Was there a transmutation of property?
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