I thought there is supposed to be an injured party or violation of someone's individual rights in order for a court to get jurisdiction authority over you I need to be enlightened on this subject
If your question is pertaining to civil rights, the rules of civil procedure jurisdiction apply. The court can exercise jurisdiction over you by having personal jurisdiction or jurisdiction in rem (through you property you own that is in issue). Personal jurisdiction can be acquired by (1) general jurisdiction, requiring there be continuous and systematic contacts between the you and the forum state, or (2) Specific personal jurisdiction, which requires (a) that you purposefully avail yourself of the forum or jurisdiction, (b) that the summons of a nonresident be reasonable given the circumstances, and/or (c) that there exists a relatedness between the cause of action arising out of the your contacts with the forum state.
Given the prerequisites, there are also rules, particularly in regard to civil rights, that dictate which courts may hear certain cases. Such as district courts have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States. So a claim under the US Civil Rights laws would go to federal court.
I hope this answers your very big question! I am happy to share more information on just how the court system acquires jurisdiction over an individual.
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