I inherited a home from my mom when she passed. I resided in it with my children until I remarried. I sold this home and used the full amount, 50% of the 240,000 new home which was 120,000. The man I married had nothing to put down. Now that I'm divorcing, is it true that this is legally my home because of my down payment? I have all papers of proof.Unfortunately, this man gambled behind my back and lived a life I wasn't aware of. I had no children with him and was married 25 years. He is trying to make me lose my home by foreclosure. Ours is a very complicated divorce to explain . We both worked and have a business together that he is trying to show makes no money since I left him. He has been very spiteful and vindictive since I left him because of abuse and learning of his life. I've been going through the divorce for over a year. I was curious about the home because a source told me if I put more then 50% down on my inherited home that I owned with my young children at the time, but not his children prior to my marriage, the home is legally mine. But it seems so complicated. Thank you for your responses.
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