We'll help you find the right solution for your needs
Does this sound like your topic?
My husband has an ex that apparently was mad the we got married. She decided that she would file charges for a credit card that she had willingly used on my husband after we got married!! Everything she bought him was willingly paid for and now she is saying she didn't give him permission. And the prosecutor is saying that because he has a prior for misuse of credit cards(his own). That he basically has no case and will not win. They want him to agree to a misdeanor(instead of a felony) and pay back the ex. They basically say since he has a prior that he will lose regardless of him being with her at the time of everything. Why is this ok at all??? Since when is owing an ex grounds for a criminal case??? Should this not be a civil matter??