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Married in 2009. 2 small children involved. In 2010, mother passed leaving inheritance. Purchased home(3) with inheritance money from my(separate) account. Was told that I could not purchase without his signature. Husband has not assisted in upkeep of the household, utilities, insurance, furnishings, or taxes. Husband has not worked a full time job since 1 month after the marriage. Only one bill in his name(internet). Also own 2 other houses(one inherited and one before marriage), timeshare, and commercial cleaning business. Willing to give up business but he is moving out of town with no intention of regular visitation so will be forced to sell. Is he entitled to half of the house(3) value, equitable distribution or can it be considered a separate asset?
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