My spouse and I are separating with intention to divorce. I began homebuying process in February and my spouse did it want anything to do with it. I had the home financed in my own name. I put the down payment myself no joint funds. So one day before closing the title company says my spouse has to sign the deed.
I don’t understand what interest he has if he has not put any money into the house. We have separate bank accounts and bills.
Loan officers says he will not be responsible for the mortgage but how is that possible? If I refinance or sell will he be entitled to any equity I accrue prior to the divorce? We were live in Tennessee but the property I am purchasing is in Mississippi. He is not moving into the home. Suppose to be purchasing his own in the next three months.
All real property purchased by one spouse automatically becomes the marital real property of the other. You will either need to obtain a divorce or have an agreement in place for your spouse to quitclaim there marital interest in the real property back to you on the day of closing. You need to hire a divorce attorney.
Any information provided is intended for general informational purposes only. This is NOT legal advice, and no attorney/client relationship has been created. You should consult directly with an attorney to obtain answers to any legal questions.
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