My ex wife took my daughter to get braces. She went with Invisalign which is considerably more expensive than traditional braces. She did this for aesthetic purposes. Question is since Invisalign wasn't medically necessary, shouldn't I only be liable for 50% the cost of traditional braces?
The devil is in the details. Mainly what does the the property settlement division say. Was there a provision about agreement on expenditures over a certain amount? The decree will control
In no way am I offering you legal advice, and in no way has my comment created an attorney-client relationship. You are not to rely upon my note above in any way, but instead need to sit down with counsel and share all relevant facts before receiving fully-informed legal advice.
If you are liable to pay for braces then you probably are liable to pay for the Invisalign unless the court order limits the amount you are liable for regarding braces. Confirm with your counsel.
It all depends on the wording of the agreement you signed during the divorce. I agree with your point that you should only be liable for 1/2 of "necessary" medical expenditures, but the decree will control.
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