Me and my husband have been married for 14 years we live in California 7 years ago we started making a rent payment go towards only the property. There's three of us myself my husband and my brother-in-law they went up and sign the deed. My husband says because we're married I'm part owner do I have to be on the deed to have any set of what happens to the property and or do I have part ownership?
This question is best answered by a Family Law attorney, but as a general rule property acquired during the marriage in California is presumed to be community property, which means you have a 50% interest in the share that is in your husband's name, but there might be other facts you have not shared that could change this result.
I am moving this to the Family Law category so a Family Law attorney can weigh in.
Your question is unclear. The title says you are not on the deed, and in the question you state that you DID sign the deed. Which is it? Are you on the deed, or not?
It is also unclear the reason why you are asking. Are you contemplating a divorce? Do you want to know for inheritance purposes? Do you want to know your rights to live in this property? The answer to your question depends on WHY you are asking and what legal goal you want to accomplish.
The information provided is for general educational purposes only and is not intended to be legal advice. No attorney-client relationship is formed nor should any such relationship be implied. The information provided is of a general nature is not intended to substitute for the advice of an attorney. Please consult with a competent attorney licensed to practice in your jurisdiction to provide you actual legal advice.
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