Just because her name is on the mortgage does not mean the home is hers. If he was granted the home in the divorce then the home is his and it will be part of his estate. She cannot sell the home since she is not his heir.
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The divorce decree likely says that he is to take the home out of her name and to refinance the loan with just his name (so that she is not liable). Often, these fact situations come up when an ex-spouse fails to pay and the creditor starts trying to collect from the non-owner spouse. Typically, the best you can do is file a motion for an order to show cause. The resulting contempt order might resolve the issue.
If the other side will negotiate a resolution, that works as well. For example, if he no longer wants the home and is willing to deed it to her via quit-claim deed and she makes the payments the home would be hers (to sell, if she wished).
No written lease does not mean there is not a rental agreement. But, if the tenant is renting and has no agreement regarding the term of the lease it would be month to month. In Utah, a month-to-month tenant can be asked to leave with a 15-day notice. If she owns the home and wants to sell it the tenant is not a significant problem.
Providing this answer does not form an attorney-client relationship. Most legal questions are exceedingly fact-sensitive and therefore this answer is a best-guess based on the information you provide. You should consult an attorney licensed in your state to further discuss your matter.
I am not a UT attorney, laws vary from state to state, therefore you should always consult a local attorney.
A divorce may cancel the tenancy be entireties that married couples have - and would convert it into a tenancy in common. If you mother has an interest in the property, it is likely 50% and the other 50% would go to her ex-husband's heirs.
However, if the divorce decree awarded the property to the ex-husband, she may have no interest at all.
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