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My wife and I got married in California and have been married 3 yrs. I purchased a home several years before marriage but still owned about 65% of the loan balance at the time we got married. Within the 1st yr of marriage I refinanced the home and added her to the title of the house only; not the loan. We sold the house this year & used almost 100% of the funds from the sale of the 1st house to buy a new property in CA. We're now both on title & the loan. We plan to file for divorce this yr. From the sale of the house we put $250K & she saved $50K since marriage & put that as down payment. Total down $300k. Expect $300k in cash left after home is sold. Would my future ex be entitled to 50%($150k) since she was on title of the 1st home even though I had paid for most of that home b4 marriag
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