If you did not sign the credit card application, the creditor cannot come after you for the debt. BUT, in a divorce the judge MAY order you to pay this debt because it was incurred DURING the marriage. Hope this helps.
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I agree with my colleague's answer. Further, if the family court ordered you to repay the marital debt, especially if the court ordered you to remit payment directly to your spouse, if you subsequently file for bankruptcy, the new laws make it very difficult for you to discharge such debt, as it may be considered a "domestic support obligation."
Please keep in mind, even if you are not getting divorced or if there was no order requiring you to repay it, the lender may still attempt to collect against you. The fact that you have no legal obligation to repay sometimes does not stop lenders from trying to do so, a lot of times in bad faith. You need to have an experienced attorney on your side, or at least to consult with one. Our office provides free consultations, with no obligation at all to you, if you choose to seek further information. Thank you for your inquiry.
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The $64.00 question is was the card used for marital debt that benefited the marriage or was it a last minute new type of spending designed to create debt for divorce purposes? If not marital debt a divorce judge would probably make the party who benefited from the debt pay the debt. For example groceries for the family? You both probably share the debt. Did one spouse go on a trip with their lover to Bermuda leaving the other spouse home where they did not get to go on the trip to work on their own tan? Then that person who got the benefit of the trip probably pays the debt alone. Every case on it's own merits or lack thereof but make sure your represented by competent counsel. Good luck.