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My husband and I are looking to buy a property in Bolton, MA that has an easement of over 6,000sq feet that was created for the neighbor by the previous owner of the property now for sale. The house went into forclosure and was purchased by the current owner (who was not the one who granted the easement). I thought that easements become void if the land is forclosed on. Is this correct? if not...what can we do to terminate the easement? We don't want to pay such high taxes on land we can't use or build on. They apparently can come across the land, build storage sheds, but it's not any more clear as to why it was created.