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1st gastro doc does sigmoidoscopy with biopsy - 2nd VA gastro does not feel any surveillance is necessary unless there are significant symptoms to justify. Patient tells doc what 1st Gastro recommends and show him the ulcer and biopsy report but 2nd gastro says he is cured of his cancer and doesn't need colonoscopy for 5 years. He is there for nonhealing ulcer. Patient reports change in stool habits in to pcp and she refers him to gastro who said the above. VA gastro only sees patient twice and makes him wait for 5 years. He all the time was reassured by VA gastro that he was okay but he wasn't - his ulcer enlarging and penetrates colon.Do we have a malpractice case including causation?
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