The divorce paper was signed by the judge on Nov, 2010.My concerns are about: the ex didn’t pay the mortgage toward the house by about 1 year and half, and so, the house was sold by the bank on Oct 2010.The property was written in the divorce paper by his lawyer (but he wasn't the owner anymore); wasn’t that a fraud? It’s more to say about finding shortly after, a letter from the bank that explains all: the calls/facts, cancelling letter from the home insurance, how he lied that didn't have $ to pay the mortgage & house doesn't any value, but his tax return says different.After 6 months from the foreclosure sale,ex paid $28,000 and brought the mortgage payment current. Wasn’t that an intentional fraud?What should I do to get my share of value of the house? A do-over agreement is an option?
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