Wouldn't that give one party an advantage over another party who was maybe even representing them selves?
No because they're in two different courts.
But I would really have reservations about this. First off a judge should not practice law outside of court. So to me, though the state may permit it under the judicial rules, to me it smacks of the appearance of impropriety which is generally the catchphrase to disqualify a sitting judge from representing clients.
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The attorney is just an attorney in the superior court. The judge of the superior court is not going to give the attorney any special treatment. If anything, the judge in the superior court may be even stricter with the attorney.
A municipal court judge has no special access to any court document filed in the case at hand in the superior court.
If you believe the attorney is getting some sort of special treatment, you can bring up the issue in open court when your case is called.
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