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I am married in Texas for 3 years. My husband purchased a house on his name, the loan is only on his name, one year before our marriage. Since married, loan was paid mostly from my income and my own resources. I Can prove that with docs.
He left the primary residency one year ago, no separation process, and since I reside in the house, paying everything, I managed to get the house out of foreclosure, pay utilities, taking care of the entire househols, etc. I do not want a divorce, yet he might file for a divorce.
In the situation that he files for divorce, and I will be pushed to accept the divorce, who gets the house?
We do not have children together.
What are the other implications, and what should I do to protect myself. I do not want to lose the house!
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