I am RE broker and personally owned 2 houses which I placed on market for sale. Another agent procured sales agreements on both houses (same buyer) with a reduced price for buying both houses. One of the houses' appraisal came in under purchase price. Buyer's agent communicated verbally to me that despite low appraisal the buyer planned to close anyway even if he had to pay additional sums out of pocket. Closing date same for both properties. He closed on one house and his daughter moved in. His agent stated at closing that he would be closing the 2nd house in a week or two. Daughter unhappy with house she moved into; claims inspector missed items. Buyer seeing that his daughter was unhappy then failed to close on the 2nd house. Contract binding?