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The question is this. The attorneys agreement says he will take 1/3 of recovery prior to filing of a lawsuit and 40% if filed after the filing of a lawsuit.
1st - It reads that he would take his share prior to paying himself back the "costs". In other words, he will take his share from the largest #. Is this legal and acceptable in CA.? Just wondering.
Also, the 40% clause is confusing. What is to say that a lawsuit is not filed unecessarily just to get the 40%.
Doing some checking up for a friend of mine. Not meaning to disrespect or distrust the atty...just want to make sure everything is legit.