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Our retainer agreement states a 40% contingency fee, under which it states that the firm will advance out of pocket expenses. No other information is in the agreement that pertains to the repayment of the expenses in addition to the 40% contingency. Our interpretation was that the repayment of fees was included in the 40%, their interpretation was that the fees are paid in addition to the 40%. Is it possible to hold us to something that isn't stated in the agreement, or in their opinion - it's "implyed"? Can you imply something in a legally binding document? I thought it was to be clearly stated.