Not come to court at all, and then file a motion to vacate a default judgment? Will it be with the same judge or is this the equivalent of "invited error" and thus be denied or require an extensive amount of time in between filings? Can this be contempt?
Foolish IMHO. Might be contempt. Not enough facts here to know.
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You would be hurting yourself. The motion to vacate will go to the same judge.
Can't see a circumstance where this is a good strategy.
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A default judgment is entered when a party fails to file a responsive pleading to the complaint. If the case actually goes to trial before a judge and you do not appear, that is not a default judgment. The plaintiff can either proceed to trial without you or have a prior arbitration award reinstated (if the case is an arbitration appeal). If the case goes to trial before a judge and you do not appear, then your recourse is to file a motion for post-trial relief and/or an appeal, not motion to open or strike a default judgment. This motion for post-trial relief would likely be assigned to the judge that conducted the trial.
So, to answer the call of your question, it would be foolish. The wise move would be to consult with an attorney.
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