I was buying a home from like 1998 to 2007 and while buying the home I got a loan for some improvements and consolidation (home loan and improvement loan are different banks). On that loan I used my house for collateral. Since then, I lost my home from foreclosure. My question is: Was that loan suppose to be aded into that foreclosure proceeding or costs because the loan was based on the collateral? Now I still am paying that home improvement loan and they send me an annual property interest paper, but there is no property. If I were have sold the house, I wouldn't of been able to without both loans being paid off, right?