In View of Code Civ. Proc. § 24, declaring actions to be two kinds, civil and
criminal, and § 22, defining actions, there is no such thing as a “quasi-criminal act.”
Ex Parte Clark, 141 P. 831, 24 C.A. 389
When was my right to have an attorney paid for at public expense forfeit if an infraction is a crime? If the matter is in fact criminal then why doesn't the DA prosecute? The cop surely can't because he/she's the State's witness. The Notice To Appear is presumably the complaint. Where does a police officer get the authority to serve a criminal complaint before it's even filed? And does a police officer get to serve his own process? And seeing as how he's not even the damaged party...
Don't we have a few substantial jurisdictional and procedural problems here?~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Your collective responses are not germane to the questions. When you're accused of an alleged infraction of the Vehicle Code, has the officer alleged a crime?