My husband and I married in 1996. I had two children from my first husband and did not want my new husband to be financially responsible for them. I never demanded or received child support from my children's father, so I alone paid for everything for them until they grew up and moved out of the home. The house I and my children lived in was solely mine before I remarried. I had four years paid on a thirty year mortgage. After I remarried, I collected half of the "rent" (mortgage) and utilities from my new husband and did not put him on the title/mortgage until 2000. We got a new mortgage and we both were on the title. We fixed the house up and sold it for a $100,000 profit. We bought a bigger home in a more desirable area in the same town. From the beginning of our relationship I knew his spending was different from mine and so we continued keeping finances separate. I'm the frugal one- he more extravagant. He has his checking account, credit cards, vehicles, loans, boats, RV all purchased independently from me. It was when he wanted a home equity loan on our new home to pay off his bills that I demanded a post nup to protect myself and he agreed. Will it hold up? I have no plans on getting a divorce, and we are a happy couple, but you know sh** happens, and I just wanted to be protected.We live in the state of Nevada.
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