My wife from the UK has a history of OCD which is treated successfully with antidepressants. In years past, she has had some self harm (cutting) she also abused alcohol in the past although I don't know if it is in her medical records. She has not had a drink for 4 years and has had no self harm or any hospitalizations for mental health in 3+ years. How do we answer 40a? The tense is confusing. She has had a condition but it now poses no reasonable threat to herself or others. Do we answer yes and get letters saying she's ok now, or do we assume since she is not a threat to herself or others now we can say no? We don't want to lie but don't want to add unnecessary difficulty to the process.