If a buyer "wins" a property subject to mortgage at an HOA foreclosure auction, then the buyer becomes responsible for the loan and may even face foreclosure from the lender. This does not seem to deter HOA's themselves from foreclosing on properties that are subject to mortgage loans. Sometimes they are the sole or highest bidder and get a title subject to mortgage. How do *they* deal with that?
I now understand that the buyer does not become liable for the 1st mortgage but might just get wiped out of their interest in the property, should the lender foreclose on the borrower. If that buyer happens to be the HOA they will not lose their bid amount, unlike a regular buyer, but the just the fees. I guess I answered my own question, if you can confirm the above.. Then if the 1st mortgage is much less than market value, I believe there is a change for a regular buyer to get a clear title in the 10-day period after the mortgage foreclosure auction, since they are the title holder but not the borrower and can't straight out pay off the loan?