We'll help you find the right solution for your needs
Does this sound like your topic?
Situation where person has not been charged at all whatsoever. Offense took place almost 5 years ago which is the statute of limitations for most charges that the u.s. doj can bring, but curious about the following. Let's say the statute of 5 years passes in which charges such as wire fraud, and money laundering cannot be brought forward by the u.s. doj because the 5 year statute has passed. Could they still resuscitate the 5 year statute period for (wire fraud, money laundering) if the u.s. doj decides to charge with a tax offense instead since the tax code title 26 allows for a statute of 6 years which is longer? In essence the question is whether the u.s. doj is only limited to charging what has not passed the statute of limitations?