I have an odd situation.
There is a lawsuit against me by a partnership that is licensed.
The qualifying partner had his own license in addition to the partnership license.
But he did not have workers compensation although he was building houses on his own. That makes him dully unlicensed, right?
If so, does that mean, his qualifying for a partnership has made the partnership duly unlicensed?
I suppose there is an argument to be made about substantial compliance, but was wondering if there is some clear information about this.