I married my wife in September 2011 in Florida where we both live. When we got married she had bought a property in 2002 with her then husband. Today the property is in both of their names. I have seen the Property Appraiser web page which shows that since 2014 the property has gained $80,000 in value. So it appears to me that since 2011 the property has gained even more in value. She has filed for divorce and I would like to know if in answering the petition I could ask the court to be granted an interest in said property, say 50% of what belongs to her since it is jointly owned with her ex-husband. I have lived in the house and I have contributed to its up-keeping and the payment of its mortgage. Will this house be considered marital property even if purchased outside the marriage? Thank you
This appears to be a duplicate question. See my prior response; and re-post, if you can, on the "divorce and marriage" forum..
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