If there is no language to suggest that they survive but an incident or accident occurred while it was in full force and effect but a claim didn't originate until after the expiration, fulfillment or termination (but before the statute of limitations) could the provisions still be invoked?
I want to assume yes much like for an example an insurance policy would still cover for the period despite when the claim originates so long as it was during the coverage period but wanted to get some other answers and opinions. Understood each case is different and may vary based on language, etc but a general idea or response is fine and all I'm looking for.
Most indemnity agreements are open ended unless language expressly limits same.
If you are being sued and there is indemnity language in a contract that was in effect at the time of the alleged accident, the language should still remain effective even if the the contract has now expired. You should talk to a local attorney and have the attorney right a defend and indemnify letter to the other party to the contract. This of course is assuming that the indemnity agreement applies to your situation.
It depends upon the language of the contract. You need to hire a lawyer to review the contract and provide you with an opinion based upon the specific language in the contract.
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