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Our house was foreclosed in 2010. We had 2 mortgages, obviously the 1st mortgage is gone but we have continued to pay on the 2nd, to preserve our credit. How can we tell if the 2nd mortgage bank received funds from the 1st mortgage bank at the time of foreclosure? They reduced nothing on our loan, but I would assume they received something to release their lien on the property. They declined the offers we received through the short sale process (1 yr. on market), although they ultimately sold the property for a significantly less amount. Are we ultimately stuck paying this 2nd mortgage on a home someone else now owns?