Example: Assuming the marital/non-marital status of all money and debts is easy to prove, and that everything described here happened shortly before the divorce: The husband received $100,000 in marital income and put it in his bank account. Then, from another bank account, which consisted of non-marital money, he paid $100,000 of marital debts. If he had paid from the marital $100,000, there would be no issue, because his non-marital money would not have been touched. Does it become a big problem because he paid from the wrong account? Or is it just a matter of offsetting one with the other?
Note that this is not nearly as complicated an issue as the example is. It's a very simple issue which happens to need detailed examples to clarify exactly what the issue is.
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