The short answers are "maybe" and "it depends". If a separation agreement had been agreed to, and husband used only his assets designated by that separation agreement, it is unlikely a court will find any reason to consider that a hidden asset. Think about it. If you had divided $10,000 and he bought a car with his $5000, you wouldn't be entitled to half of the car. You already received half and his half remains his, whatever form it takes. But if the money he used was hidden money and had not already been dealt with in the division of property, you may have a claim.
THE ANSWER PROVIDED is for general informational purposes only. This attorney does not intend to give legal advice. Evaluating the statutes and case law, as well as any relevant court documents together with a more detailed factual analysis could result in a different response. The attorney does not intend to create an attorney/client relationship by the response. Anyone seeking legal advice should always consult with retained legal counsel for a full evaluation of his or her claims.Ask a similar question
Sign up to receive a 10-part series of useful information and legal advice about the divorce process.