2 heirs each inherit 1/2 interest in real property of deceased. However, the LWT also gives the executrix the right to dispose of and sell the residual estate (of which the property is a part) as "she deems necessary" without the permission of or consultation with the other heir. The other heir would still get a 1/2 share of proceeds, but is it necessary to give him a 1/2 interest first by executor's deed? He'd refuse to sell if given a 1/2 interest in property and would not buy out the other 1/2, either. Guy's a total jerk. Ultimately the property will end up in a forced partition. Is selling the property first with the proceeds split between the heirs an option?