An individual property owner marries without prenup. She wants her property to go to her children. She finds out after the fact that, even though her property remains hers during life and goes with her in divorce, he has "dowry rights" to property if she dies during marriage. She wants her property to go to her children. He refuses to sign off his rights to the property. If she has a will drawn up specifying he did not contribute to property (paid off well before he married her) and she wants her property to go to her children, will that be sufficient to direct that property to her children? Or, is divorce the only way she can sever his claim?