I was charged with statutory sexual seduction in 2000 and served 3 years probation. My record reflects a gross misdemeanor so I was able to purchase a firearm when my background was run.
Maybe my understanding of the NRS is incorrect but what I took away was that there was a possibility of sealing because it's not a felony on my record. Am I way off? Because the original charge was a felony, do those rules apply? Or is it simply that no sex offense can be sealed?
I'm not crying poor me because I definitely committed an offense but I'm having difficulty obtaining employment in my desired profession.
Thank you in advance for your reply.