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A person has complied with sentencing. ( A guilty plea on a DWI with part of the sentence being that if he should not repeat the offense within ten years he shall be not charged with a second offense but a first,)
He is charged with a second offense twenty years later.
Does this mean the court told him the wrong information at the first offense and in fact void the agreement that he made at the time of the first offense.
Does Melanies Law violate prior sentencing agreements ? ( MA )
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