A local hospital routinely has patients sign a consent to bill their insurance company.
There is an entity that has clinicians assigned to the hospital to provider specific services. The clinicians assigned to that hospital seldom get the patient to sign the entity's own consent form to bill the insurance. And the question is if this entity can use the patient's signed hospital consent to be able to bill for the entity's services.
Not sure, but something like California's Welfare and Institutions Code 5832(C) could allow that kind of arrangement? Please comment.
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