Employer required 2 years of work before allowing the employees to have any vacation. Now, they are changing it by requiring 39 months before any vacation can be allowed. Can they do that? I thought vacation is provided to the employees as a matter of right under the Labor Codes and not subject to employer's discretion. Is vacation then is classified under the fringe benefits that tends to be negotiable or discretionary than what the law provides to the employee?
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