I purchased an item for nearly $1000 from pawn shop A. Soon after I needed some cash so I went to pawn shop B and received a $500 loan. 2 weeks later I recieve a call from pawn shop B stating the item was siezed by police as stolen property. I then went to pawn shop B with my original purchase receipt (from shop A) to prove I was not the alleged thief. I felt bad about the situation, and offered to pay back the $500 to shop B when I got my money back from shop A for selling me a stolen item. The owner of shop B then told me I don't owe anything anymore, and that they are a business and therefore covered by this loss. He then told me if I get the money back good for me and hope it goes well. Needless to say, I went to court alongside pawn shop B so we could face pawn shop A when they would not reimburse me. The court gave pawn shop B nothing but forced shop A to fully reimburse me. Pawn shop B is now telling me I owe them $500 now after telling me they were covered by restitution and I don't have to. Am I legally required to pay them $500? I gave them $100 instead to cover their court cost. Also, the item was stolen in Twin Lakes Wisconsin. A&B are located in Round Lake Beach IL.
Please tell me this is a spoof or a school paper. When you were the victim, B stood by you. When you were made whole, B asked to be made whole as well. Under the uniform commercial code, when you tendered the item to B you were warranting you had merchantible title. They always had a valid claim on you, but deferred because you were an innocent victim. It would be OK for you to ask them to share any litigation expenses with you but it is neither legal or decent for you to stiff them after you scored. The minute A's money hit your hands, you stopped being a bona fide purchaser victim. Sometimes it helps to simply ask "Would my mother be proud of what I am doing?"
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