My husband and I bought a house 4 months before we got married. We were legally common law married at the time. The problem is, my name is not on the house or loan. It is in his and his father's name. He says if we divorce, we will sell the house and split the profit, but I can see him changing his mind and screwing me once it's sold.
Am I legally entitled to half of the profit because we were common law married but not paper married? Kansas does recognize common law marriage, we met all of the requirements, and I was on his insurance as spouse. Can he legally keep me from getting anything?