My husband died from service connnection in Vietnam 2 weeks before we sold our home. I have purchased another home. I am retired and am on Social Security with benefit from VA due to death of husband.
You may qualify for a reduction in real estate tax based on age and income. Contact the County about this.See question
My abusive boyfriend might have to go to prison for 5-10 years, how long before the property(house) is considered abandoned? I don't want to get back together with him! We are both on the deed and own the house outright! There are no children invo...
You will not be able to take advantage of the notion of abandonment. You are also limited in what you can do with the property while he is a co-owner. If the money that went into the house is yours, you can go to court to have his interest declared to be a small percentage or even zero if it was all your money. The best thing might be to determine his percentage ownership, then see whether you can get court permission to sell, giving him qhatever money he is entitled to, and take your share to locate elsewhere. This all assumes you cannot get his permission to do anything. If he says that it is ok to sell, then be sure to get a power of attorney form signed and recorded.See question
I submitted my clients' offer to a seller. His listing agent sent us a counter. I spoke to my clients, one of whom works in transportation and didn't have access to the internet until the end of his shift, and they verbally accepted the offer. Wit...
An acceptance should be made in the manner required by the offer. Your contract form probably says that an emailed signature is binding and is silent about an emailed assent by an agent. The implication is that the acceptance must be signed. Your message could be construed as the conveyance of an intention to sign and be nonbinding. Was there offer said to be open for a period of time? If you have that you might be able to piece together a compelling argument but you would have the laboring oar in that argument. This might be considered an ethical breach by the other agent, depending on what the other party was doing and what the agent said to that party. If the price was above the listed price, there may be an opening in the listing agreement.See question
I purchased the house before we met. I put 20% down on the house and put about $40K into renovations. He helped with the labor but I covered it financially. We eventually got married but his name was never put on the title or the mortgage. Last ...
I don't believe that there is a hard and fast rule. Before you were married he had a claim to the value of his labor unless there was an agreement to share equity at that time. If there was such an agreement then usually people divide the equity according to their contribution which would just be fraction with your two contributions. When you got married a complexity was introduced, the property sounds like it became a mixed separate and community asst. It became a community asset to the extent community funds (pretty much all revenue after marriage) were put into it. On the other hand if there was a partnership agreement, it might still be held as a partnership, despite the record of you owning it. The easiest thing to do is to just figure out how much his contribution is worth if someone else had done it and how much each of you has paid. If this is on-going it would be inviting chaos not to have a written agreement. If the loan closes, you usually figure out how much each person has paid into the loan. That is going to create a complexity that can only be avoided by a clear written agreement.See question
In 2007, the Washington State Supreme Court rejected the concept of an "informal appearance" in law suits in Washington State, saying, "The informal appearance doctrine ... would permit any party ... to simply write a letter expressing intent to c...
There shouldn't be a risk if in the declaration supporting the motion you clearly state the facts so that you cannot be said to have withheld anything from the court. In the motion you should brief the law concerning the inadequacy of the appearance.See question
I need help dismissing a superior court casze
Depending on the status of the lawsuit, the court where it was filed, and whether you are plaintiff or defendant, this can be very easy or quite complicated and sometimes even impossible. You need a lawyer to review the pleadings for you.See question
a director who is also the cfo, of the builder signed contract with professional management co but excluded key clause, ie cancellation of contract for cause.
The usual sequence of events is to discuss the matter with the person who signed the contract. If nothing can be worked out, then find as many owners as you can to join you. Then the group should discuss the matter with the person. Depending on the Declaration and the Bylaws, you can call a special meeting to have the person removed or take similar action or together the group can sue. You should find out if there is officer's insurance first. You may be able to sue the person individually for an intentional violation of an important provision. Depending on circumstances, you may also be able to be awarded attorneys' fees. Generally speaking it is better for the community if a solution short of litigation is found.See question
I am owner if few properties , all properties is managed by Separate LLC , one of our customers trying to sue me because of icy driveway , ? I am not involved in running properties , can they do this ?
You need to talk to a lawyer. The lawyer should review your lease, your management agreement, and confirm the nature of your ownership and the facts of the case. (I presume there was some sort of accident.) Normally the lease would put responsibility for this sort of thing on the renter. The property management agreement could put it on the manager. There are other considerations as well. You haven't given nearly enough fact to give you a reliable answer.See question
My wife and I have half ownership in a duplex (2 unit building) and a small property it sits on with another single person. we have a thought that the family of the other owner (she does not talk with her family much so she too has concerns) coul...
If she has no will then the property goes to her family by intestate succession, according to state statutes. If she wants you to have it after she dies there are a number of different ways to do that other than by will. These involve keeping a present ownership interest and giving your what is called a future interest, something that automatically conveys fee title to you upon her death.See question
Making payments on note. Holder accepted varied payment amounts. Not all payments were exact amount specified in note. Does that make the note invalid?
The note remains valid but the right to collect the full amount required to be paid each month might have been waived, depending on the circumstances.See question