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I was awarded $3600 from my ex-wife's 401k in our divorce 2 years ago. She refuses to pay me.
To transfer an interest in a 401 (k) requires a special type of order called a Qualified Domestic Relations Order. Section 9.101 of the Family Code states the post decree procedure to obtain such an order. Time limitations could possibly apply, so prompt action is indicated. Drafting these orders is not simple.See question
My ex called me and told me that my attorney did not file a QDRO and that i wont get my part of his TRS what can i do to get this filed or is it to late. he retires in 08/2017 is there any help for me my divorce was final in 10/2000, i don't ev...
Very possibly. The answer will depend on what the decree states or does not state. This is an important matter potentially involving substantial amounts. The Family Code does contain provisions that may well help you.See question
In a relationship with individual who is responding party in current divorce litigation. I've been subpoenaed by petitioner's counsel to give oral deposition in the pending litigation. Petitioner & respondent have lived separate and apart for 9 ye...
If one acts timely, one has the ability to assert objections to the document request. The objections must be proper objections and you must assert them in the proper manner. You should be represented by an attorney. Objections to questions may also be asserted at the deposition. The Texas Rules of Civil Procedure limit the objections that your lawyer may assert at the deposition.
My response is intentionally general and this email does not establish or indicate any type of attorney and client relationship.See question
I live in Texas. My husband and I have been married for 16 and a half years we bought a home seven months after being married. His name is the only name the deed. We just filled for a divorce will I be able to get 50% of the proceeds from the sale...
Most likely yes. Community property is to be divided in a "just and right" manner upon divorce. All property on hand at the time of divorce is presumed to be community property. Separate property (which is not divisible) generally refers to property acquired prior to marriage, by gift or by inheritance. Separate property can mutate - meaning that - for example - property purchased with the proceeds of separate property is also separate property. These matters can become highly complex and many other rules of law come into play. My comments are only of a general nature and do not constitute legal advice .See question