Right wouldn't making it illegal for someone to own a gun for prier convictions be conflicting with the 2nd amendment? Or is it a proper law which is consistent and non confrontational with our constitution. Truthfully it sounds like a loophole in taking ones right to own a firearm( not saying that it is intended in that manner). Basically is it constitutional and how so? To me it sounds like an infringement on an amendment which is as i know it not constitutional?
Well, one of the only ways to find out is to get arrested and try and make new case law. This is not advisable given the state of the law. You could also sue for an injunction in court, a much less riskier proposition, but an expensive long shot.
In United States v. Hayes, decided after the watershed gun-rights case, District of Columbia v. Heller, upheld the conviction of a person who had a prior for domestic violence and was illegally in possession of a gun.
I'll take your advise on that and not get arrested lol. But thanks for the advise truly helpful in all seriousness..