Skip to main content

When does a property become separate property? Community property?

San Francisco, CA |

The prenup list that the instigating party (Party A) owns a property.
At the time of marriage the property in question was actually owned by a trust.
Party A has 50% interest in the property once the transfer takes place (after marriage).
Party A and spouse pay Party B owner rent until a time when Party A and spouse buy out Party B.
Party A forces spouse through obligations interpreted, by Party A, from the prenup to grant deed the property back to her sole property.

Was the property ever actually separate property of Party A? At what point did the community actually acquire an interest? Does undo influence apply when it is based on the stipulations of a prenup? Did Party A break fiduciary duties to Party B? Was there a transmutation of property?

Attorney Answers 2


  1. This question is too confusing as written. I think you would benefit greatly from taking the agreement to an attorney and having him/her review it for you. The expense for an hour of time would be well spent.

    I do not represent the person who asked this question, and was not given enough information to provide a better answer. The limited information is enough to indicate that a consultation with an attorney in your area is necessary and advised.


  2. Agreed with Ms. Long. No attorney can give a proper answer to such question without more details, including reviewing the prenup. No shortage of family law lawyers in the Bay area. Set up a consult and I'm sure you can get your questions answered and learn more about your rights.

Family law topics

Top tips from attorneys

What others are asking

Can't find what you're looking for?

Post a free question on our public forum.

Ask a Question

- or -

Search for lawyers by reviews and ratings.

Find a Lawyer

Browse all legal topics