What does "remand rearrest" mean if the defendant has already been sentenced?

Asked almost 3 years ago - Orangevale, CA

My son-in-law was recently sentenced on PC 273.5(A) Felony charge and now his status has been changed to "remand rearrest", ineligible for bail until the projected release date. What can happen to change things this way?

Attorney answers (3)

  1. Michael Rutledge Norton

    Contributor Level 16
    Best Answer
    chosen by asker

    Answered . The only reason I can think of for the no bail and rearrest is if he has a new case. He would not be able to bail out once sentenced anyway so that doesn't apply to this case. Contact his attorney.

  2. John M. Kaman

    Pro

    Contributor Level 20

    Answered . I am guessing based on the few facts you have given us but it sounds like your son was out of custody until sentencing at which time he was remanded (rearrested). I do not understand why there would be a no bail notation as while he is serving his time he is not eligible for bail anyway. Does he have a second case? That would explain the rearrest no bail notation.

  3. Chris J Feasel

    Contributor Level 17

    Answered . It may also be based on a probation violation. Has he picked up a new case? Many jurisdictions automatically put "no bail" status on probation violations. You should check with an attorney to see what is going on.

Can't find what you're looking for? Ask a Lawyer

Get free answers from experienced attorneys.

 

Ask now

27,369 answers this week

3,017 attorneys answering

Ask a Lawyer

Get answers from top-rated lawyers.

  • It's FREE
  • It's easy
  • It's anonymous

27,369 answers this week

3,017 attorneys answering