2nd amendment (not directly anyway), it comes from a Supreme Court decision ABOUT the 2nd Amendment called "The District of Columbia vs. Heller" . The 2nd Amendment, as written by the Founding Fathers and set down in the Bill of Rights is:
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
Which (until 2008 when the Washington gun lobby stepped in) has always been interpreted as "You have the right to bear arms, as long as you are serving in a militia". It was only AFTER DoC v. Heller (when the NRA flooded the case with cash) that it was re-interpreted as "You have the right to bear arms, unconnected with military service".
If I am to guess (because you never actually asked a question), you have an OWI (or some form of drunk driving conviction) and now you cannot carry a concealed pistol. Is that correct? Keep in mind that the 2nd Amendment is not absolute and caselaw has said so. Here is a link to my Facebook site where I recently posted a statement that may help you better understand it. The Government may restrict firearms under certain situations or from certain people. Scroll down and look at my January 31 posting. Then click on the case I noted and read it. Take a look: https://www.facebook.com/CallEdInstead?ref=hl
I would not put it that way. The Second Amendment is notoriously ambiguous and is subject, for many reasons. to more than one interpretation. But in our system it is the duty of the Supreme Court to make those interpretations for legal purposes. Although numerous decisions, including some previous observations by the Supreme Court itself, generally leaned toward other interpretations, the matter is resolved, for legal and practical purposes, by Heller. As a matter of purely academic discussion, of course, it remains open forever.
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