My husband and I married many years ago. His parents had a house. Some time after marriage, his name was added to his parent's house, but not mine. After that, it has been me who paid the mortgage. Before filing the divorce, we signed a PSA that he would pay me equity for that house and I pay no alimony to him. However, he later challenged the PSA because he did not sign it voluntarily and he got nothing from the PSA. "voluntarily" was explicitly stated in the PSA. The PSA was set aside by the judge. Should I appeal and what is my chance? He works but makes less than me.