In my Separation Agreement dated 1998 the following is written: The wife agrees not to object in the case the husband applies for a divorce provided that the total amount due and owing her from husband is paid in full before the divorce is issued. I was granted the divorce almost 5 years later without her lawyer contesting that she did not receive her rights in full within 3 years.Do you consider this S.A valid or Null and Void
We are divorced almost 7 years and still asking to pay her the balance that I contested not being able to pay. Is this legal?
